Sweetman v An Bord Pleanala & Ors [2020] IEHC 39 (31 January 2020)
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[2020] IEHC 39
THE HIGH COURT
COMMERCIAL
JUDICIAL REVIEW
IN THE MATTER OF SECTION 50 OF THE PLANNING AND DEVELOPMENT ACT, 2000
[ 2019 No. 33 J.R.]
BETWEEN
PETER SWEETMAN
APPLICANT
AND
AN BORD PLEANÁLA, IRELAND AND THE ATTORNEY GENERAL
RESPONDENTS
AND
IGP SOLAR 8 LIMITED
NOTICE PARTY
JUDGMENT of Mr. Justice Denis McDonald delivered on 31 January, 2020
Introduction
1. In these judicial review proceedings, the applicant seeks to quash the decision of the first
named respondent (“the Board”) dated 15th November, 2018 to grant planning
permission for a development of a 67.8 hectare solar farm at Fiddane, Ballyhea, County
Cork. The decision of the Board in this case arose following an appeal by a third party of
a decision by Cork County Council (“the Council”) to grant permission for the
development.
2. The applicant’s case as against the respondent was argued on the basis of three distinct
grounds:-
(a) In the first place, it was argued that the Board acted ultra vires and in breach of the
Planning and Development Regulations, 2001 (as amended) (“the 2001
Regulations”) by failing to include notice of the receipt of the appeal of the decision
of the Council in the weekly Board list not later than the third working day following
the week ending 23rd February, 2018;
(b) Secondly, the applicant contends that the decision of the Board is ultra vires and
not in compliance with the obligations that arise under Directive 2011/92/EU (as
amended) (“the EIA Directive”) in circumstances where (so the applicant alleges)
there was an absence of a proper screening for Environmental Impact Assessment
(“EIA”). The debate in relation to this issue largely centres on whether a
development of the kind proposed here falls within Annex II to the EIA Directive;
(c) Thirdly, it is the applicant’s case that the decision of the Board was ultra vires and
in breach of its obligations under Council Directive 92/43/EC (“the Habitats
Directive”) in circumstances where there was a failure to carry out an appropriate
assessment or a proper screening for an appropriate assessment. The debate in
relation to this issue was focused on whether, contrary to the decision of the CJEU
in Case C-323/17 People over Wind v. Coillte Teo, the Board had taken mitigation
measures into account at the screening stage.
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3. The Board is not, however, the only respondent to these proceedings. Ireland and the
Attorney General (“the State respondents”) have also been named as respondents to the
proceedings. The basis on which the State respondents have been joined is far from
clear. The case is made that, if the Board made the decision of 15th November, 2018 in
accordance with Irish law, then it must follow that the State has failed to adequately
transpose the Habitats Directive and the EIA Directive. However, no provision of Irish law
is identified in the statement of grounds which it is alleged fails to properly transpose the
provisions of either the Habitats Directive or the EIA Directive. Remarkably, this element
of the applicant’s case occupied no more than one paragraph in the written submissions
delivered on behalf of the applicant. There were, however, some submissions made in
the course of the very helpful oral presentation of the applicant’s case by counsel. As I
understand it, the case which the applicant makes against the State respondents only
arises in the event that the court concludes that, in the context of its approach to the EIA
and Habitats Directive issues, the Board acted lawfully in accordance with Irish law. It is
therefore appropriate that I should defer dealing further with the case against the State
respondents until after I have addressed each of the issues that arise as between the
applicant and the Board (as summarised in para. 2 above). I deal with those issues, in
turn, below. It should be noted that the notice party, IGP Solar 8 Ltd, the notice party,
did not participate in the hearing.
The weekly list
4. In order to explain the issue which arises in relation to the weekly lists, it is necessary to
bear in mind that Mr. Sweetman was not a party to the planning application process that
took place before the Council. He did not make any submissions or observations in the
course of the process which led to the grant of planning permission. However, under s.
130 (1) (a) of the 2000 Act, any person other than a party to the proceedings before the
planning authority may make submissions or observations in writing to the Board in
relation to an appeal. Under s. 130 (1) (b) submissions or observations must be made
within the period specified in s. 130 (3). That subsection also provides that any
submissions or observations received by the Board after the expiration of that period
“shall not be considered by the Board”.
5. In turn, s. 130 (3) lays down a number of different time periods depending on the nature
of the process before the Board. In the case of an appeal of the kind in issue here, s. 130
(3) (c) provides that the period for making submissions is:-
“…the period of 4 weeks beginning on the day of receipt of the appeal by the Board
or, where there is more than one appeal against the decision of the planning
authority, on the day on which the Board last receives an appeal”.
6. The Board is not empowered under the 2000 Act to extend the period prescribed by s.
130 (3). Furthermore, under s. 130 (4), a person who makes submissions or
observations to the Board is not entitled to elaborate upon the submissions or
observations or to make further submissions or observations in writing in relation to the
appeal and the subsection provides that any such subsequent submissions or
observations that are received by the Board from such a person “shall not be considered
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by it”. The combined effect of s. 130 (3) and s. 130 (4) is that it is crucial for a person to
whom s. 130 applies (such as the applicant) to ensure that submissions and observations
are furnished to the Board within the relevant four-week period and that the submissions
are as comprehensive and cogent as possible. Once the relevant four-week period has
expired, there is no opportunity to supplement the case made by filing additional written
observations or submissions.
7. It is important to keep in mind that the relevant four-week time period runs from the date
of receipt of the appeal by the Board. However, a person (such as the applicant here)
who was not a party to the process before the planning authority will obviously not be
immediately aware of the lodgement of the appeal with the Board. Equally, the Board will
be unaware of the existence of any such person. The Board is, therefore, not in a
position to notify such a person in the same way as the Board would notify a party to the
process. The position of parties to the process before the planning authority is addressed
in s. 129 (1) of the 2000 Act. Under that subsection, the Board is required “as soon as
may be after receipt of an appeal” to give a copy to each party (other than the appellant).
Under s. 129 (3) (a) those parties then have a period of four weeks from the date the
relevant appeal is sent to them in which to make submissions or observations in writing
to the Board. In contrast, the time period for persons such as the applicant runs from the
date of lodgement of the appeal and therefore begins to run even before they become
aware of the existence of the appeal.
8. In order to give effect to the right of persons under s. 130 to make submissions and
observations, it was necessary to put in place a system for publication of lodgement of
appeals. The way in which persons other than parties become aware of the existence of
an appeal is through the mechanism of the weekly list. Under Regulation 72 (1) of the
2001 Regulations, the Board is required “not later than the third working day following a
particular week, make available a list of … (a) the appeals… received by the Board …
during that week”. For completeness, it should be noted that, subsequent to the events
in issue, the provisions of Regulation 72 (1) were amended by the European Union
(Planning and Development) (Environmental Impact Assessment) Regulations 2018 (S.I.
No. 296 of 2018) (“the 2018 Regulations”) under which the Board was also required to
display the appeals for inspection on its website. The 2018 Regulations are not, however,
relevant to these proceedings. The appeal here was lodged with the Board on 22nd
February, 2018. The 2018 Regulations did not come into effect until 1st September,
2018.
9. Under Part 1 of the Schedule to the Interpretation Act, 2005 (“the 2005 Act”) a “week” is
defined as meaning the period between midnight on any Saturday and midnight on the
following Saturday. In this case, as noted above, the appeal was lodged with the Board
on 22nd February, 2018. That was a Thursday. Thus, under Regulation 72 (1) of the
2001 Regulations, the Board was required to include the appeal against the decision of
the Council in the relevant weekly list not later than the Wednesday immediately following
22nd February, 2018 namely 28th February, 2018. However, the appeal was not included
in the list of appeals published on the Board’s website on that date. Instead, it was
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included in a revised weekly list which was uploaded onto the website on 8th March,
2018. In this context, although Regulation 72 (in its then current form) did not
specifically require the Board to make a list of appeals available on its website, the Board
had adopted the practice of publishing the lists on its website so as to make the lists
readily available to the public. Under Regulation 72 (7) the Board was empowered to
display the list at its offices or by any other means including in electronic form that the
Board considered appropriate.
10. As noted above, the appeal from the decision of the Council was not included in the
weekly list published by the Board on its website on 28th February, 2018. The
explanation provided by the Board for the non-inclusion of the appeal in the list published
on 28th February, 2018 is that the Board was undertaking an on-going information
technology (“IT”) systems upgrade involving the migration of large volumes of data from
the Board’s previous website servers to one new server.
11. The applicant says that he did not become aware of the appeal until after the decision of
15th November, 2018 was made. In a replying affidavit sworn on behalf of the Board by
Mr. Pierce Dillon, he noted that the applicant has not provided any evidence or
justification as to why the applicant did not see and review the amended and revised
weekly list published by the Board on 8th March, 2018 or at any time thereafter.
12. According to the affidavit of the applicant in response, he did not see the second list and
did not realise that the original list of 28th February, 2018 was incomplete. The applicant
also drew attention to the fact that the weekly lists were in pdf form at that time and
could not be searched using the website’s main search function. Each weekly list had to
be opened and searched individually.
13. In a subsequent affidavit sworn on 21st November, 2019 the applicant further explained
that:
“I am certain as I can be that I read the first list for the week ended 23rd February,
2018 when it was published online on 28th February, 2018 because it is my habit to
read the new lists on a Wednesday evening. I did not notice that the proposed
solar farm development in the Blackwater catchment had been added to a
subsequent list made on 08 March 2018”.
14. In the same affidavit, the applicant observed that, although some changes have been
made to the way in which the Board now publishes its list of new cases each week, it has
not “changed its habit of updating the weekly list long after the deadline for publishing
the list has passed”.
15. The applicant complains that, as a consequence of the failure of the Board to include the
appeal in the weekly list published on 28th February, 2018, he lost the opportunity to
make submissions in relation to the appeal. The applicant has explained that he has a
long held interest in the protection of the Freshwater Pearl Mussel and, as a consequence,
he seeks to identify planned new developments in river catchments where the species is
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known to exist. The Blackwater River has a number of populations of the mussel. One of
the issues which arose in the course of the appeal before the Board was whether the
development had the potential to adversely affect a number of species in the Blackwater
River and its tributaries. The applicant says that he would wish to have made
observations in relation to the freshwater pearl mussel which is a highly endangered
species.
16. The principal issue which arises in this context is whether the provisions of Regulation 72
(1) in relation to the weekly lists are mandatory or merely directory. However, the Board
also seeks to raise a further issue in this context. Although the Board does not challenge
the standing of the applicant to mount a challenge to its decision in these proceedings,
the Board argues that, in the event that the court concludes that the obligation is
mandatory, the court should nonetheless, in the exercise of its discretion, refuse relief to
the applicant on this ground. The Board stresses that the remedy sought is discretionary.
The Board submits that the court, in considering whether to grant such a discretionary
remedy, has tended not to be impressed by purely technical arguments in relation to
alleged breaches of procedure unless the applicant has suffered significant prejudice.
17. The Board has also drawn attention to the fact (which is not denied by the applicant) that
the original application made to the Council for planning permission for this development
had been advertised in the Vale Star, a newspaper circulating in the locality where it is
intended to construct the development. The Board also places some emphasis on the fact
(which again is not denied by the applicant) that the Council had published on its website
weekly lists of planning applications and further information received by the Council in the
course of its consideration of the application made by the notice party (“IGP”). In
response, the applicant has said, on affidavit, that he did not see the advertisement in the
Vale Star. He draws attention to the fact that this newspaper has a very small and very
local circulation and he contends that, in the circumstances (including the fact that he
lives in County Mayo at a considerable distance from the site of the proposed
development), it was unsurprising that he would not see a planning notice published in
that way. He also avers that the notification by the Council of the planning application in
its weekly list was also made outside the statutory time frame and that he did not see the
notification when it was eventually made. It was also strongly urged on behalf of the
applicant that he was entitled in law to make a submission to the appeal to the Board in
this case. The appeal here was made by the Fiddane Solar Action Group who the
applicant said had raised issues of interest to him in particular the need for an EIA
together with the need for a sufficient screening exercise for appropriate assessment.
The nature of the obligation imposed by Regulation 72(1)
18. Before turning to any issues that might be said to go to the discretion of the court to
grant relief, it seems to me that the first issue that requires to be addressed is whether
the obligation imposed by Regulation 72(1) of the 2001 Regulations is mandatory or
directory.
19. The applicant makes the case that the obligation imposed on the Board under Regulation
72(1) of the 2001 Regulations is mandatory. The applicant places some emphasis on the
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use of the word “shall” in this context although, as the applicant acknowledged, in the
course of submissions by his counsel, the use of the word “shall” will not always be
construed as imposing a mandatory statutory requirement. The relevant principle was
explained as follows by Henchy J. in the Supreme Court in the State (Elm Developments
Ltd) v. Monaghan County Council [1981] ILRM 108 at p. 110 where he said:-
“Whether a provision in a statute … which on the face of it is obligatory (for
example, by the use of the word ‘shall’), should be treated by the courts as truly
mandatory or merely directory depends on the statutory scheme as a whole and
the part played in that scheme by the provision in question. If the requirement
which has not been observed may fairly be said to be an integral and indispensable
part of the statutory intendment, the courts will hold it to be truly mandatory, and
will not excuse a departure from it. But if, on the other hand, what is apparently a
requirement is in essence merely a direction which is not of the substance of the
aim and scheme of the statute, non-compliance may be excused”.
20. If the court concludes that a provision is truly mandatory, then compliance with that
requirement will be regarded as a pre-condition to the validity of any decision affected by
the statutory provision in question unless it can be shown, in the words of Henchy J. in
the State (Alf-a-Bet) Ltd v. Monaghan County Council [1980] ILRM 64 at p. 69 to be:
“… so trivial, or so technical, or so peripheral, or otherwise so insubstantial that, on
the principle that it is the spirit rather than the letter of the law that matters, the
prescribed obligation has been substantially, and therefore adequately, complied
with”.
21. The applicant has sought to rely on a number of authorities that have applied the
principles laid down by the Supreme Court in the Elm Developments and Alf-a-Bet
decisions. In particular, the applicant relies on the decision of Kelly J. (as he then was) in
McAnenley v. An Bord Pleanála [2002] 2 I.R. 763 and the decision of Simons J. in
Southwood Park Residents Association v. An Bord Pleanála [2019] IEHC 504. The
applicant also sought to rely on the public participation and access to justice principles
enshrined in the Aarhus Convention although this did not feature in the oral submissions
made by counsel for the applicant at the hearing. In response, the Board argued that, on
a proper construction of the 2001 regulations, the obligation imposed by Regulation 72(1)
was directory rather than mandatory. The Board drew attention in this context to the fact
that the 2001 Regulations do not specify the consequences of a failure to comply with
Regulation 72(1). The obligation is therefore to be distinguished from provisions such as
s. 37 (3), s. 127 (2) and s. 130 (2) of the 2000 Act. In contrast to Regulation 72 of the
2001 Regulations, s. 37 (3) of the 2000 Act provides that certain appeals received by the
Board after the expiration of a prescribed period “shall be invalid as not having been
made in time”. Similarly, s. 127 (2) states that an appeal or referral which does not
comply with the requirements of s. 127 (1) shall be invalid. Section 130 (2) also provides
that submissions or observations by persons other than parties to the appeal which do not
comply with the requirements of s. 130 (1) shall be invalid.
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22. On behalf of the applicant, it was argued that the weekly lists should be accurate and
should be published on time so that persons in the position of the applicant will be in a
position to identify appeals of interest to them and to make submissions within the four-
week time limit for doing so. My attention was drawn to the observations of Murphy J. in
O’Connor v. Cork County Council [2005] IEHC 352 and Finlay Geoghegan J. in Linehan v.
Cork County Council [2008] IEHC 76 where, in both cases, it was made clear, in the
context of the equivalent obligation that lies on planning authorities to publish weekly lists
of planning applications, that the public are entitled to rely on the lists as containing all
applications received in the relevant week.
23. It was submitted on behalf of the applicant that the obligation imposed by Regulation 72
(1) of the 2001 Regulations is a critical component of the public participation regime.
Against that backdrop and in circumstances where the relevant four-week time limit for
making submissions runs from the date of receipt of the appeal, it was argued that the
word “shall” in Regulation 72 (1) must be read as mandatory. Otherwise, the right of
public participation envisaged by s. 130 (1) would be severally curtailed or entirely
abrogated. It was suggested that the present case was an example of the latter in that it
involved the abrogation of the applicant’s rights to participate in the appeal process and
to make observations in relation to a critically endangered species such as the Freshwater
Pearl Mussel.
24. As noted above, the Board places significant reliance on the fact that, in contrast to the
statutory provisions discussed in para. 21 above, Regulation 72 does not provide that a
failure to comply with the obligation imposed by the regulation would render the appeal
invalid. However, I am not persuaded that the absence of such a provision means that
the use of the word “shall” in Regulation 72 (1) must be read as directory rather than
mandatory. There are two decisions which are of particular assistance in this context –
namely the decisions of Kelly J. (as he then was) in Graves v. An Bord Pleanála [1997] 2
IR 205 and McAnenley v. An Bord Pleanála [2002] 2 IR 763. In Graves, there was a
failure to comply to the letter with s. 4 (5) (b) of the Local Government (Planning and
Development) Act, 1992 (“the 1992 Act”). Under that provision, an appeal was required
to be made in one of three ways. In particular, under s. 4 (5) (b) an appeal could be
made by “leaving the appeal with an employee of the Board at the offices of the Board
during office hours”. There was no provision in the 1992 Act declaring that a failure to
follow this procedure would render the appeal invalid. Nonetheless, Kelly J. held that the
obligation imposed by s. 4 (5) was mandatory. In that case, the appeal had been taken
to the offices of the Board within the prescribed time and had been left with a security
guard (who was not an officer of the Board). Although the security guard had, in turn,
passed the appeal to an officer of the Board on the same day, Kelly J. held that the
appeal had not been properly made. At p. 214, he said:-
“The wording of Section 4, sub-section 5 of the Act… is in mandatory terms. It
requires that an appeal be left with an employee of the Board at the offices of the
Board. It appears to me that an appellant who wishes to argue that he has made a
valid appeal would have to be able to demonstrate compliance with the statutory
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provisions. …Mr. Graves… cannot prove that the appeal was left with an employee
of the Board at the offices of the Board on the day in question. The fact that an
employee of the Board came into possession of the documents on the 20th
January, 1997 does not appear to me to discharge the obligation of the appellant to
demonstrate compliance with the mandatory requirements of [the sub-section]…”.
25. Subsequently, in McAnenley, an issue arose as to whether the requirements of s. 6 of the
1992 Act were mandatory or merely directory. Under s. 6 of the 1992 Act, a planning
authority was required, where its decision was appealed to the Board, to furnish certain
documents to the Board within a period of 14 days from the date on which a copy of the
relevant appeal had been forwarded to the authority by the Board. Section 6 used the
word “shall” in this context. There was no provision which stated that any failure to
comply with this obligation rendered the appeal invalid. Nonetheless, Kelly J. came to the
conclusion that the obligation on the planning authority was mandatory and that the
failure of the planning authority to furnish certain documents falling within the ambit of s.
6 invalidated the Board’s decision in respect of the appeal. Citing the observations of
Henchy J. in Elm Developments, Kelly J. at p. 765-766 said:-
“It is suggested that this statutory provision is to be interpreted as not creating a
mandatory obligation on a planning authority. Rather it is said to be permissive.
I cannot agree with this proposition…
I am of the view that the legislature in setting up the statutory scheme of appeals
to the respondent had in mind that certain documents would be placed before it
when it is called upon to exercise its de novo jurisdiction involving an appeal to it
from a decision of a planning authority.
The obligation to submit these documents is placed on the planning authority. The
section uses the word “shall”. The intent of the legislature is that there should be
placed before the board the documentary material as specified which was on the
planning authority file and was before it when it made its decision…”.
26. The approach taken by Kelly J. in McAnenley is particularly relevant in light of the
submission made by the Board in para. 2.13 of its written submissions where the
following case is made:-
“2.13 It is worth noting that… if the Applicant’s contention… was taken to its logical
conclusion, any slippage by the Board in the requirement to publish a list of appeals
within 3 days of the week following the lodging of an appeal would… render that
appeal a nullity. There is nothing in the language of the Regulation to suggest such
an extreme consequence, nor could it be argued that the Minister, by Regulation,
should have intended such a consequent curtailment of the statutory right of
appeal”.
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27. A similar argument might well have been made in McAnenley. The “slip” in that case was
made by the planning authority, the local County Council. Yet, that “slip” in failing to
furnish all of the relevant documents to the Board rendered the subsequent decision of
the Board on the appeal invalid. It may seem harsh that the rights of the parties to the
appeal could be adversely affected by a “slip” on the part of the Board. However, if the
provisions of Regulation 72 are mandatory, then, as McAnenley demonstrates, the failure
to comply with the obligation imposed by the regulation will render any decision of the
Board invalid unless it can be established that the failure to comply was of an
insubstantial or trivial nature (in which case the non-compliance might be excused).
The obligation imposed by Regulation 72 (1) is mandatory
28. I have come to the conclusion that the obligation imposed by Regulation 72 (1) is
mandatory in nature. I have reached that view for the following reasons:
(a) In the first place, I do not believe that any significant distinction can be drawn
between the approach to be taken to Regulation 72 (1) on the one hand and the
approach taken by Kelly J. in Graves and McAnenley in relation to ss. 4 (5) and (6)
of the 1992 Act, on the other. The two decisions of Kelly J. illustrate that, in a
planning context, the use of the word “shall” is particularly important. It is also
significant that in both s. 4 (5) of the 1992 Act (the subject of the decision of Kelly
J. in Graves) and s. 6 of the 1992 Act (the subject of the decision of Kelly J. in
McAnenley) there was no provision declaring that a step taken in breach of the
relevant obligation would render that step (or the underlying appeal) invalid.
(b) Secondly, I must bear in mind that Regulation 72 uses the word “shall”. While the
use of that word does not automatically make mandatory the obligation imposed,
the word “shall” as a matter of ordinary English usage, carries that connotation;
(c) Thirdly, and most importantly, the use of the word “shall” in Regulation 72 (1) must
be read in the context of s. 130 of the 2000 Act and in particular in the context of
the strict four-week time limit for the making of submissions by persons who are
not parties to the underlying planning process. In circumstances where the Board
is not empowered by the 2000 Act to extend the four-week time limit for the
making of observations and submissions, it is difficult to see how the obligation
imposed by Regulation 72 (1) could be read as other than mandatory. The failure
to publish a list of appeals on time carries with it the risk that the right to make
submissions might be rendered entirely nugatory or, at the very least, could
significantly curtail the ability of an interested person from making detailed
submissions (particularly in a complex or document heavy case).
(d) To interpret Regulation 72 (1) as being merely directory could have very serious
consequences. For example, if there was a failure to publish the weekly list until
very close to the four-week deadline for making submissions – or even after that
deadline – the scheme of public participation envisaged by s. 13 of the 2000 Act
could be entirely undermined. For that reason, it is crucial that the obligation
imposed by Regulation 72 should be performed by the Board on time. There is
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accordingly every reason to give the word “shall” in Regulation 72 (1) its ordinary
and natural meaning – namely that it is obligatory (i.e. mandatory) to comply.
The failure to comply with Regulation 72 (1) cannot be said to be insubstantial
29. Nor do I believe that there is any basis upon which I could properly conclude that the
failure by the Board to comply with its obligations under Regulation 72 (1) was
insubstantial or trivial. As Simons J. observed in Southwood Park Residents Association v.
An Bord Pleanála [2019] IEHC 504, the ability of the courts to excuse or waive a breach
of a procedural requirement of this kind is limited. Simons J. referred to the judgment of
Henchy J. in Alf-a-Bet where the latter said at p. 69:
“…when the 1963 Act prescribed certain procedures as necessary to be observed for
the purpose of getting a development permission, which may affect radically the
rights or amenities of others and may substantially benefit or enrich the grantee of
the permission, compliance with the prescribed procedures should be treated as a
condition precedent to the issue of the permission. In such cases, what the
Legislature has, either immediately in the Act or mediately in the Regulations,
nominated as being obligatory may not be depreciated to the level of a mere
direction except on the application of the de minimis rule..”.
30. As noted in para. 20 above, the de minimis principle can only be applied where there is
substantial compliance with the relevant statutory obligation such that any non-
compliance with the obligation can be regarded as trivial or insubstantial. In Southwood
there had been a failure to publish on the Board’s website a number of bat surveys. This
was contrary to Article 301 (3) of the 2001 Regulations. Simons J. rejected the
suggestion that the de minimis principle was capable of application. At paras. 41-42, he
explained that it is difficult to apply that principle where the public authority is given no
discretion in the performance of an obligation under a statutory provision. He said:
“41. Where judicial review proceedings are brought alleging a failure to comply with fair
procedures, then it might be appropriate for the court to consider the content of the
documents, and, in particular, to assess whether there is new material in respect of
which a right to reply must be afforded. Typically, this will be done against a
background whereby the decision-maker itself has considered the material and
reached a view on whether or not same contains new material. The High Court, on
judicial review, will normally show some deference to that view. ….
42. The legal position is entirely different where, as in the present case, the decision-
maker has no discretion. In such circumstances, it is inappropriate for either the
decision-maker, or for the court, to embark upon a detailed examination of the
content of the material with a view to determining whether or not it is significant or
otherwise. This is because the Oireachtas has ordained, albeit mediately through
Ministerial Regulations, that all documentation in respect of a planning application
must be posted on a dedicated website. In truth, therefore, the position is closer to
that analysed by the …Kelly J. in McAnenley …. It will be recalled that the breach in
McAnenley was fatal even in circumstances where the content of … one of the
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missing documents, i.e. the planning authority's decision, was available in an
almost identical form.”
31. It was argued in that case that there was no significant difference between a 2017 bat
survey which had been posted on the Board’s website and the 2018 bat survey which had
been omitted. However, Simons J. concluded that it could not be said that the differences
between the two surveys could be regarded as insubstantial. He came to the conclusion,
in the circumstances, that the right to effective public participation had been undermined
as a result of the failure to post the report on the website. This denied members of the
public (including the applicant in that case) the opportunity to make submissions in
relation to the survey and as to the conditions which should be imposed by the Board.
32. Although counsel for the Board made a number of submissions at the hearing as to why
the decision in Southwood should be distinguished, I cannot avoid the conclusion that the
failure to include the appeal in this case in the weekly list published on 28th February,
2018 was a substantial failure to comply with the Board’s obligations under Regulation 72
(1). The failure had serious consequences in that any member of the public (including the
applicant) who happened to read the weekly list on 28th February, 2018 would not be
aware that an appeal had been taken against the decision to grant permission for this
extensive solar farm development in County Cork. This had very serious implications for
the right of public participation and in particular the right available under s. 130 of the
2000 Act. I appreciate that, of course, the appeal was included one week later in a
revised list. However, if a member of the public was unaware of the publication of the
revised list, the right to make submissions would be entirely lost. Even if a member of
the public happened to notice the appeal in the revised list, the fact that the revised list
was not published until one week later meant that there was a shorter time in which to
make submissions. While it was suggested by counsel for the Board that this was not a
substantial interference with the right to make submissions, I regret that I cannot accept
that submission. The legislature has determined that a period of four weeks should be
available for the making of submissions. The legislature has not given the Board any
discretion to extend that period. In circumstances where the relevant four-week period
runs from the date of lodgement of the appeal, the effect of the late publication of the
revised list means that any member of the public who happened to see the revised list
would have only two weeks in which to make submissions or observations. This is
because the relevant four-week period runs from 22nd February, 2018 and the revised
list was not published until 8th March, 2018. This was only two weeks prior to the date of
expiry of the time for making submissions. By my calculation, the relevant time for the
making of submissions expired on either 21 or 22 March 2018. That represents a
substantial curtailment of the time available to make submissions. I cannot accept that
this curtailment can be regarded as insubstantial particularly in circumstances where the
appeal in this case related to such a significant development and where there were a
substantial number of documents to consider and digest before any member of the public
could reasonably be expected to make detailed submissions or observations in exercise of
the right available under s. 130. In the circumstances, there is no scope for application of
the de minimis principle. That principle might be capable of application if, for example,
Page 12 ⇓
the appeal in this case had been published in the weekly list on 28th February, 2018 but
some other appeal (in which the applicant had no interest) had not been included in that
list. In that event, there would obviously have been a breach by the Board of its
obligations under Regulation 72 (1). However, as between the applicant and the Board,
the breach would be of a technical or insubstantial nature because it would not have
prevented the applicant from making submissions or observations in the present appeal.
In contrast, for the reasons discussed above, the breach of Regulation 72(1) here cannot
be said to be insubstantial, trivial or merely technical.
Discretion of the Court
33. Counsel for the Board also submits that, in any event, the court should, in the exercise of
its discretion, decline to quash the decision of the Board in this case. In making this
submission, counsel relies on a number of matters including the fact that the applicant
has had an opportunity (albeit belated) to exercise his right of public participation in that
he is entitled to pursue an argument in these proceedings that there was a breach of the
EIA Directive and the Habitats Directive. The Board also contends that there is no
evidence or justification offered by the applicant for his failure to make a submission or
observation to the Board following the publication of the revised list on 8th March, 2019.
The Board further draws attention to the fact that the underlying planning application to
the Council was duly advertised and was included in the Council’s weekly list.
34. I do not, however, propose to address, at this point, the arguments made by the Board in
relation to the exercise of the court’s discretion. It seems to me that I should defer doing
so until I have considered the remaining issues in these proceedings. Obviously, if the
applicant succeeds in any of the remaining issues, it would be unnecessary to address the
question of discretion.
EIA
35. The Board (through adoption of the report of its inspector) took the view that there was
no requirement for an EIA in this case. The inspector took the view that solar farms are
not a class of development that is listed in either Part 1 or 2 of Schedule 5 to the 2001
regulations (which mirror the provisions of Annex I and Annex II to the EIA Directive). In
reaching this conclusion, the inspector referred to Class 3 (a) (dealing with industrial
installations for the production of electricity, steam and hot water) Class 10 (b) (iv)
(dealing with “Infrastructure Projects-urban development which would involve an area
greater than … 20 hectares…”) and Class 10 (d) (d) (private roads which would exceed
2,000 metres in length). She expressed the view that solar farms do not fall into any of
these classes. In turn, her report was adopted by the Board.
36. This view taken by the Board is now challenged by the applicant in these proceedings. In
the statement of grounds, it is pleaded (at para. 41) that the proposed development is:
“an industrial development for the generation of electricity set out over a significant area
within the Munster Blackwater Catchment … that at the very least requires a screening for
EIA under EU and Irish law”. At para. 45 of the statement of grounds, it is also pleaded
that the proposed development should be characterised as an industrial estate
development project listed in Annex II of the EIA Directive.
Page 13 ⇓
37. At the hearing, the main argument advanced by counsel for the applicant, in the context
of the EIA element of the case, was that the proposed development fell within the ambit
of Class 3 (a) of Annex II which covers industrial installations for the production of
electricity, steam and hot water. In turn, when counsel for the Board came to make his
submissions, he suggested that this issue had not been adequately pleaded. It is true
that, although the applicant’s case against the Board is otherwise very clearly, logically
and succinctly pleaded, there is no specific reference in the statement of grounds to
installations for the production of electricity, steam and hot water. Nonetheless, as
outlined above, para. 41 does refer, in somewhat broad-brush terms, to “industrial
development for the generation of electricity…”. When read in conjunction with the report
of the inspector, I think it is reasonably clear that the applicant intended to refer to Class
3 (a) development. This certainly appears to be the way in which the matter was
understood by each of the respondents. When it came to delivery of their respective
statements of opposition, each of them specifically referred to Class 3 (a). In para. 50 of
the statement of opposition delivered on behalf of the Board, it is expressly pleaded that
Class 3 (a) refers to installations for the production of combined heat and power from
electricity, steam and hot water and therefore does not include the proposed
development. Similarly, in para. 11 of the statement of opposition filed by the State
respondents, it is pleaded that the project is not an industrial installation for the
production of electricity, steam and hot water, as envisaged by Class 3 (a). It therefore
appears to be the case that both sets of respondent understood the plea at para. 41 of
the statement of grounds to refer to Class 3 (a) projects. In the circumstances, it seems
to me that the Class 3 (a) issue falls within the ambit of the case made by the applicant in
his statement of grounds and therefore falls to be considered as a live issue in the case. I
am accordingly required to consider the case made by the applicant with regard to the
Class 3 (a) issue. I must also, in due course, address the other contention made by the
applicant namely that the development should be characterised as an industrial estate
development project within Class 10 (a) of Annex II (although this was not strongly
pressed at the hearing).
38. Under Article 2 of the EIA Directive, Member States are required to adopt all necessary
measures to ensure that, before development consent is given, projects likely to have
significant effects on the environment should be subject to EIA. The final sentence of
Article 2 (1) clarifies that the projects in question are those defined in Article 4.
39. In turn, Article 4 (1) provides that the projects listed in Annex I must be made subject to
an EIA in accordance with Articles 5-10. Article 4 (2) addresses projects listed in Annex
II. In the case of such projects, Member States are required to determine whether the
project should be made subject to EIA either through:
(a) A case-by-case examination; or
(b) Thresholds or criteria set by the Member State (or by a combination of such an
examination and thresholds).
Page 14 ⇓
40. As noted above, the applicant contends that the proposed development falls within Class
3 (a) in Annex II which is in the following terms:
“(a) Industrial installations for the production of electricity, steam and hot water
(projects not included in Annex I)”.
41. The Board submits that the reference in Class 3 (a) to “the production of electricity,
steam and hot water” must be read conjunctively and, accordingly, the proposed project
does not fall within the ambit of that class since it will not generate any steam or hot
water. In contrast, the applicant contends that the reference to “electricity, steam and
hot water” should be read disjunctively and that the proposed project is therefore
captured as an industrial installation for the production of electricity.
42. On behalf of the applicant, it was submitted that, in accordance with the decision of the
CJEU in Case C-72/95 Kraaijeveld [1996] ECR I-5431, the language of the EIA Directive
indicates that it has a wide scope and a broad purpose and should therefore be
interpreted with that principle in mind. In Kraaijeveld, the CJEU had to consider whether
the expression “canalization and flood-relief works” in Annex II to the EIA Directive must
be interpreted as including certain works on a dyke running alongside waterways. The
works in question in that case were designed to alter the frequency with which river
banks and the surrounding areas were submerged. The works required the erection of
dykes along the river banks of a river in the Netherlands. The relevant class of project
was contained in para. 10 (e) of Annex II. However, there was a divergence in how that
class was described in a number of different language versions of the Directive. The
English and Finnish versions referred to “canalization and flood-relief works” while the
German, Greek, Spanish, French, Italian, Dutch and Portuguese versions referred to
canalization and regulation of watercourses. The Danish and Swedish versions contained
only a single expression reflecting the idea of regulating watercourses. Given the
divergence between the different language versions, the CJEU indicated that it was
necessary to bear in mind the purpose and general scheme of the Directive and the court
then continued at para. 31 in the following terms:
“The wording of the directive indicates that it has a wide scope and a broad
purpose. That observation alone should suffice to interpret point 10(e) of Annex II
to the directive as encompassing all works for retaining water and preventing floods
— and therefore dyke works — even if not all the linguistic versions are so precise”.
43. The applicant placed particular reliance on a subsequent decision of the CJEU in Case C-
117/17 Comune di Castelbellino which concerned a project to increase the capacity of a
plant for the production of electricity from biogas. The underlying facts of the case are
somewhat complex. In 2012, the relevant Italian authorities authorised the project to
increase the capacity of the plant in question. They did so under a law which was
subsequently invalidated by the Italian Constitutional Court. Italian law was thereafter
amended but in 2015 the authorities again gave permission for the project to proceed.
On both occasions, the Italian authorities came to the conclusion that EIA was not
necessary. The CJEU came to the conclusion that the project fell within Class 3 (a) of
Page 15 ⇓
Annex II. The applicant contends that, in taking that approach, the CJEU effectively
treated an installation for the production of electricity as falling within the ambit of Class 3
(a) even where it did not involve the generation of heat or steam. In making that
submission, counsel for the applicant referred in particular to the observations of the
CJEU in paras. 35-36 of the judgment:
“35. First of all, it should be noted that a project for a plant for the production of
electricity from biogas with a nominal power rating of less than 1 kW does not come
within the scope of paragraph 2(a) of Annex I to [the EIA Directive], which covers
thermal power stations and other combustion plants with a heat output of at least
300 MW, but within that of paragraph 3(a) of Annex II …, which covers projects for
industrial installations for the production of electricity not included in Annex I.
36. Work to increase the capacity of a plant such as that in question in the main
proceedings therefore constitutes a project in respect of which the Member States
must determine whether it is to be subject to an EIA …”.
44. Counsel for the applicant placed significant emphasis on the way in which the CJEU in
these paragraphs simply referred to “industrial installations for the production of
electricity” without any reference to the production of steam or heat. However, counsel
for the Board disputed this interpretation and suggested that it is clear that the CJEU was
using the words “installations for the production of electricity” as shorthand for the full
terms of Class 3 (a). Counsel for the Board also suggested that the production of
electricity from biogas was likely to generate both heat and steam. Counsel for the Board
suggested that when paras. 35 and 36 are read together, it is clear that the CJEU was
addressing its mind to whether the relevant project was within Annex I or Annex II. It is
unsurprising in the circumstances that the CJEU made no reference to either hot water or
steam. I agree with the observations made by counsel for the Board. Furthermore,
having regard to the considerations outlined in paras. 45-48 below, I believe there can be
no doubt that the generation of electricity simpliciter does not fall within Class 3 (a)
unless the relevant project also generates heat and steam.
45. Counsel for the Board submitted that a significantly more relevant decision of the CJEU is
to be found in its judgment in Case C-215/06 Commission v. Ireland which concerned the
Derrybrien windfarm. One of the complaints made by the Commission in that case was
that Ireland had failed to ensure that a planning permission relating to a windfarm and
associated works was not made subject to EIA. Notably, the complaint made by the
Commission was not founded on the suggestion that the generation of electricity by a
windfarm fell within Class 3 (a) of Annex II. The complaint made was that the
construction of the windfarm involved the extraction of peat and minerals and also
significant road construction such as to fall within Class 2 (a), Class 2 (c) and Class 10
(d). Counsel for the Board argued that it is inconceivable that, if the EU legislature had
regarded the generation of electricity (without any heat or steam) to fall within Class 3
(a), the Commission would not have relied on Class 3 (a) in its complaint against Ireland
in that case. It is clear from paras. 96-103 of the judgment in that case that the
Page 16 ⇓
complaint successfully maintained by the Commission against Ireland was confined to
aspects of the construction of the windfarm and no suggestion was made that the
generation of electricity was itself covered by Annex II. It should be noted that the
relevant development of the Derrybrien Windfarm commenced prior to the coming into
force of the amendments made to the EIA Directive by Directive 97/11/EC (addressed in
more detail in para. 47 below). At paras. 96-103, the CJEU said:
“96. Moreover, while it is common ground that installations for the harnessing of wind
power for energy production are not listed in either Annex I or Annex II …, it is not
disputed by Ireland that the first two phases of construction of the wind farm
required a number of works, including the extraction of peat and of minerals …, and
also road construction, which are listed in Annex II …, respectively in point 2(a) and
(c) and in point 10(d).
97. Consequently, [the EIA Directive] was applicable to the first two phases of
construction of the wind farm ….
98. It follows that Ireland was bound to subject the work on the projects to an impact
assessment if they were likely to have significant effects on the environment, by
virtue, inter alia, of their nature, size or location (see, to that effect, Case C 72/95
Kraaijeveld ...).
99. However, Ireland states that the competent authorities took the view that Annex II
… was not applicable, since the ancillary works of peat extraction and road
construction were minor aspects of the project of wind farm construction itself.
100. The competent authorities therefore considered that there was no need either to
investigate whether the intended projects were likely to have significant effects on
the environment or, … to conduct an [EIA]….
101. However, the fact that the … projects falling under Annex II … may have been of
secondary importance vis-à-vis the wind farm construction project taken as a whole
did not mean that, by virtue of that fact alone, those projects were not likely to
have significant effects on the environment.
102. The intended projects of peat and mineral extraction and road construction were
not insignificant in terms of scale by comparison with the overall area of the wind
farm project which covered 200 hectares of peat bog and which was the largest
project of its kind in Ireland, …. In addition, those works were carried out on the
slopes of Cashlaundrumlahan Mountain, where there are layers of peat up to 5.5
metres in depth, ….
103. It follows from those factors, which are not disputed by Ireland, that the location
and size of the projects of peat and mineral extraction and road construction, and
the proximity of the site to a river, all constitute specific characteristics which
demonstrate that those projects, which were inseparable from the installation of 46
Page 17 ⇓
wind turbines, had to be regarded as likely to have significant effects on the
environment and, accordingly, had to be subject to an assessment of their effects
on the environment.”
46. In my view, it is plain from the approach taken in Commission v. Ireland, that the
generation of electricity through wind energy (which does not involve the generation of
heat and steam) was not considered to fall within Class 3 (a). this conclusion is strongly
reinforced by a consideration of what is now Class 3 (h) of Annex II. This coincides with
the provisions of Class 3 (j) of the original version of the Directive (namely Directive
85/337/EEC). Class 3 (h) (as it now is) provides as follows:
“(h) Installations for hydroelectric energy production”.
47. If the generation of electricity (without the concomitant generation of heat and steam) fell
within Class 3 (a) it is difficult to understand why the EU legislature would have
considered it necessary to include Class 3 (h) (i.e. Class 3 (j) in the original version). It is
equally difficult to understand why, in 1997, the EU legislature would have considered it
necessary to include a new class within Annex II to specifically capture wind farm
installations. If the generation of electricity was already covered by Class 3 (a), there
would have been no need to amend the Directive in 1997 to include this new class. Yet, in
1997, as part of an extensive overhaul of the Directive, the EU legislature (in Directive
97/11/EC) expressly included an entirely new class of project in Class 3 (i) of Annex II.
This remains the case under the current version of the Directive. Class 3 (i) provides as
follows:
“(i) Installations for the harnessing of wind power for energy production (wind farms)”.
48. In light of the considerations outlined in paras. 45 to 47 above, I have come to the
conclusion that the generation of electricity (without the concomitant generation of heat
and steam) does not fall within Class 3 (a) of the Directive. Like any provision of the
Directive, Class 3 (a) must be read in context. While, of course, the provisions of the
Directive must be given a broad scope, it is clear that, when Class 3 (a) is read in
conjunction with Class 3 (h) and 3 (i), it does not extend to the generation of electricity
unless the project in question also generates heat and steam. There would have been no
need to include Class 3 (h) and 3 (i) if the generation of electricity was already covered
by Class 3 (a).
49. There was some debate at the hearings as to whether the use of the words “or” and “and”
in other classes within Annex II could be said to throw light on whether the word “and” in
Class 3 (a) should be read in a conjunctive or disjunctive sense. In light of the
conclusions which I have reached (as set out in paras. 45-48 above) I do not believe that
it is necessary to express any final view on those arguments. In any event, I have
significant doubt as to whether it is helpful to try to interpret the meaning of the word
“and” as used in Class 3 (a) by reference to the use of the word “and” or “or” in wholly
different classes. While each class must be read in context and in light of the purpose
and objective of the Directive, the syntax and punctuation used appears to be peculiar to
Page 18 ⇓
each class and it is not possible, in my view, to identify any clear pattern to the way in
which the EU legislature has used either the word “and” or the word “or”. All I can say is
that, on a straightforward reading of the language of Class 3 (a), the word “and” appears
to be used conjunctively rather than disjunctively. I stress, however, that my reasons for
concluding that Class 3 (a) does not extend to the generation of electricity simpliciter are
set out in paras. 45 to 48 above.
50. In these circumstances, I have come to the conclusion that the applicant’s case in relation
to EIA must fail. With regard to the alternative case made by the applicant that the
development falls within the ambit of Class 10 (a) which covers “industrial estate
development projects”, I can see no basis for this contention. No sufficient argument was
addressed to me on this issue to persuade me that a solar farm of this nature could be
said to constitute an “industrial estate development project”. In this regard, it is well
settled that the onus lies on the applicant, in judicial review proceedings, to prove his or
her case. In these proceedings, the applicant has failed to demonstrate that the
development falls within Class 10 (a).
Screening for appropriate assessment
51. This element of the applicant’s case is based on the judgment of the CJEU in Case C-
323/17 People Over Wind v. Coillte Teo which addressed the issue as to whether
mitigation measures could be relied upon by a competent authority when carrying out a
screening exercise (otherwise known as a Stage 1 assessment) for the purposes of Article
6 (3) of the Habitats Directive. It is now well established as a matter of EU law that,
where a development is proposed in the vicinity of a Natura site, the competent planning
authority must carry out a screening exercise essentially to assess whether there is a
prospect that the development may have a deleterious effect on the site in question. If
there is such a prospect, the authority must then carry out a full appropriate assessment
in order to ascertain whether deleterious effects can be avoided. The People over Wind
case concerned a project involving the connection of a windfarm to the national electricity
grid. The project in question was in close proximity to a Natura 2000 site namely the
River Barrow and River Nore SAC which contained a habitat for the Irish subspecies of the
freshwater pearl mussel which is included in Annex II to the Habitats Directive. Under the
relevant Irish regulations, Coillte was itself responsible for any necessary appropriate
assessment of the project. Coillte retained consultants to conduct a screening exercise as
to whether the development could have the potential to have adverse impacts on the
pearl mussel. The screening report prepared by the consultants suggested that, in the
absence of protective measures, the project had the potential for the release of
suspended solids into watercourses which could lead to the release of silt or pollutants
into the pearl mussel population through the pathway of such watercourses. It is well
established that any increase in silt or sedimentation is deleterious to the pearl mussel
and adversely affects its ability to reproduce. However, a conclusion was reached that,
on the basis of the protective measures which were proposed, there was no risk to the
SAC and accordingly it was unnecessary to carry out a full appropriate assessment. The
approach taken by Coillte was challenged by the applicants who contended that, it was
impermissible, as part of a screening exercise for appropriate assessment, to take
Page 19 ⇓
mitigation measures into account. In the High Court, Barrett J. referred a question to the
CJEU for a preliminary ruling as to whether mitigation measures can be taken into
account when carrying out screening for appropriate assessment under Article 6 (3) of the
Habitats Directive. The CJEU concluded that such measures could not lawfully be taken
into account at the screening stage. At paras. 34-40 of its judgment, the CJEU explained
the rationale for its decision in the following terms:
“34. … it is settled … that Article 6(3) … makes the requirement for an appropriate
assessment of the implications of a plan or project conditional on there being a
probability or a risk that the plan or project … will have a significant effect on the
site concerned. In the light, … of the precautionary principle, such a risk exists if it
cannot be excluded on the basis of objective information that the plan or project
will have a significant effect on the site concerned …
35. … the fact that … measures intended to avoid or reduce the harmful effects of a
plan or project on the site concerned are taken into consideration when determining
whether it is necessary to carry out an appropriate assessment presupposes that it
is likely that the site is affected significantly and that, consequently, such an
assessment should be carried out.
36. That conclusion is supported by the fact that a full and precise analysis of the
measures capable of avoiding or reducing any significant effects on the site
concerned must be carried out not at the screening stage, but specifically at the
stage of the appropriate assessment.
37. Taking account of such measures at the screening stage would be liable to
compromise the practical effect of the Habitats Directive in general, and the
assessment stage in particular, as the latter stage would be deprived of its purpose
and there would be a risk of circumvention of that stage, which constitutes … an
essential safeguard provided for by the directive.
38. In that regard, the … case-law emphasises the fact that the assessment carried out
under Article 6(3) of the Habitats Directive may not have lacunae and must contain
complete, precise and definitive findings and conclusions capable of removing all
reasonable scientific doubt as to the effects of the proposed works on the protected
site concerned ….
39. It is, moreover, from Article 6(3) … that persons such as the applicants … derive in
particular a right to participate in a procedure for the adoption of a decision relating
to an application for authorisation of a plan or project likely to have a significant
effect on the environment ….
40. In the light of all the foregoing considerations, the answer to the question referred
is that Article 6(3) … must be interpreted as meaning that, in order to determine
whether it is necessary to carry out, subsequently, an appropriate assessment of
the implications, for a site concerned, of a plan or project, it is not appropriate, at
Page 20 ⇓
the screening stage, to take account of the measures intended to avoid or reduce
the harmful effects of the plan or project on that site.”
52. As appears, in particular, from para. 40 of the judgment of the CJEU, it is not permissible
to take into account, at the screening stage, measures which are intended to avoid or
reduce the harmful effects of a plan or project. The effect of the judgment appears to be
that a court, in a case of this kind, is required to reach a conclusion as to what was the
intention underlying the particular measures in question. This is an issue which has been
considered in a number of recent High Court decisions (which are examined in more detail
below).
53. The applicant in the present case submits that the Board erroneously took into account,
as part of its screening exercise under Article 6 (3) of the Habitats Directive a number of
mitigation measures which IGP proposes to put in place which the applicant contends are
intended to ensure that the construction and operation of the proposed solar farm will not
have a deleterious impact on the freshwater pearl mussel in the River Blackwater.
54. In order to understand the applicant’s case, it is therefore necessary to consider some of
the underlying facts. The proposed site of the development is approximately one
kilometre from the Blackwater River (Cork/Waterford) SAC (“the SAC”). There is a
population of freshwater pearl mussel approximately nine kilometres from the site. The
freshwater pearl mussel is among the species designated as qualifying interests for the
purposes of the SAC. The qualifying interests also include the Atlantic salmon. According
to the conservation objectives for the SAC, there are three populations of pearl mussel in
the River Blackwater which are composed entirely of aged adults with no evidence of
recruitment for at least 20 years. The habitat for the species is currently unsuitable for
the survival of adult mussels or the recruitment of juveniles. This is largely due to over
sedimentation. Thus, any release of sediment into watercourses draining into the
Blackwater would have an obvious deleterious impact on the mussel. It is clear from the
materials before the Board that the construction of the proposed development would
require (inter alia) the potential stripping of overburden material, the stockpiling of such
material on site, the stockpiling of building materials (such as sand and cement), the
storage of fuel on site, and excavation works for construction of fencing, trenching and
the laying of ducts and cables. There are a number of streams in the general vicinity of
the proposed development including the Ardglass stream, the Oakfront stream and
several drainage channels within the site. During the course of the planning process, it
was acknowledged that the primary potential water pollution receptors were these
streams and the drainage channels. The Oakfront stream runs along the eastern
boundary of the site while the Ardglass stream runs close to the western boundary of the
site.
55. According to the screening reports submitted by the developer, IGP, to the Council (which
formed part of the material considered by the Board) there is no “significant potential
source-pathway-receptor link” to the SAC from the development site. The relevant
screening report dealt with the freshwater pearl mussel as follows:-
Page 21 ⇓
“These are not found within nine kilometres of the site and the drains within the
site would not create a clear connection by which they would be affected within the
area of their known occurrence”.
56. However, as the report of the inspector makes clear, she identified that, contrary to the
impression created in the consultants’ screening reports, there is, in fact, a hydrological
connection between the site and the SAC. At p. 32 of her report, the inspector stated:-
“The Ardglass Stream to the west and the Oakfront River to the east discharge to
the Blackwater SAC c.662 m and 1.9 km downstream of the site respectively. The
nearest mapped qualifying interests in the SAC are the whiteclawed crayfish c.3 km
to the south…of the appeal site.
There is a hydrological connection between the site via the drainage ditches to the
designated site. Field drains within the site discharge into the adjacent
watercourses noted above. As a consequence, there is potential for indirect effects
from emissions to ground and surface water during the construction phase such as
silt laden runoff, hydrocarbons or other pollutants”.
57. However, it was argued by counsel for the Board in the course of the hearing before me
that, in circumstances where the developer, IGP, had proposed the protective measures
in issue in the belief that there was no hydrological connection between the development
site and the SAC, the protective measures cannot have been intended to avoid or reduce
the harmful effects of the project on the SAC. Counsel submitted that, in any event, it
was clear from the materials submitted on behalf of IGP during the planning process that
the measures were designed to protect flora and fauna on the development site itself and
that they had not been designed with a view to protecting the SAC.
58. Counsel for the Board drew attention, in this context, to the preliminary construction
environmental management plan (“CEMP”) which stated on p. 5 that the mitigation
measures discussed in s. 6 of the same document were “to ensure that there are no
adverse negative impacts on the hydrological, hydrogeological and ecological features of
the proposed development site”. (Emphasis added). However, it should be noted that, in
s. 5 of the same document, the authors state that the primary potential water pollution
receptors are the Oakfront stream and the Ardglass stream. The tributaries to those
streams and the various drainage channels within the proposed development site were
identified as potential secondary water pollution receptors. In s. 6 of the CEMP, the
authors identify the steps that would be taken to prevent contamination of watercourses.
In particular, it identified that, in advance of construction works taking place, silt fences
would be put in place to prevent any silt laden waters entering the drainage ditches or
seasonal streams which discharge to the Oakfront stream or the Ardglass stream. The
CEMP made clear that these silt fences would remain in place until the site had been fully
landscaped and the risk of silt laden run-off had been minimised. Any trapped silt would
be spread on site prior to any landscaping or grass seeding.
Page 22 ⇓
59. In addition, s. 6 of the CEMP described how straw bales would also be used as an
additional precaution. These would be placed in the ditches to intercept any silt laden or
potentially polluting run-off (which had not been kept in place by the silt fences)
migrating towards the Oakfront or Ardglass streams. The CEMP also set out measures in
relation to dust minimisation. Section 6.2.3 stated that no concrete production would
take place on site “due to the sensitivity of the watercourses in the vicinity of the site”.
In addition, no washing down of lorries or any other construction vehicles would take
place on the site.
60. The CEMP also provided that a protection protocol would be put in place which would
implement (inter alia) any recommendations made by Inland Fisheries Macroom “to
ensure the protection of the River Blackwater and its tributaries and the associated
aquatic fauna and any fisheries connected to the site by the river”. In addition, it stated
that weather conditions would be “considered” during all construction operations and no
plant would enter within 100 metres of the Oakfront or Ardglass stream during or
following heavy rain or “other conditions likely to lead to large-scale or additional water
flow that would carry soil or silt into the watercourses”. There were also further details in
relation to the grid connection, site tidiness, operational controls and storm water
management.
61. There were additional mitigation measures set out in the screening reports which were
prepared in the course of the planning process by consultants retained by IGP. The first
such report was prepared in February 2017 in which it was stated that:-
“Construction measures are the only ones that create any major modifications to
the site as its operation will not have any ongoing impacts”.
62. In s. 6.0 of the February 2017 screening report, it was stated that there would be no
effect on Natura 2000 sites as a result of the project “following standard best practice
procedures and mitigation measures”. In s. 6.1 a number of mitigation measures were
outlined. Hedgerow removal was to be undertaken outside of the bird nesting period.
There was to be avoidance of all marsh areas watercourses and wet drains “to prevent
any downstream effects on water quality and to protect marsh areas”. The marsh areas
in question appear to have been within the development site itself. Cleaning of solar
panels would involve the use of non-toxic cleaning agents and there would be ongoing
monitoring of the site to determine whether any of the measures would require
modification.
63. In response to the February 2017 screening report, the Council in September 2017
sought a revised screening report detailing the proposed grid connection and its potential
for significant impacts on the SAC. Thereafter, in November 2017, a revised screening
report was submitted. In the summary at the beginning of the November version of the
screening report, it was stated that:-
“Mitigation measures are proposed for the site’s flora and fauna and none is
required for any Natura sites”.
Page 23 ⇓
64. The November 2017 screening report provided more detail in relation to (inter alia) the
SAC. As noted in para. 55 above, it stated that there was no significant potential source-
pathway-receptor link to the SAC. In s. 5.1.1 (dealing with the effects on the SAC) it now
contained additional information in relation to the grid connection. Section 5.1.1 stated:-
“In the normal execution of construction operations … there will not be any impact
upon habitats or species within or directly adjacent to Natura 2000 sites…. The
watercourses crossed by the electrical ducts required to connect the solar park with
the national grid will not be entered by equipment and the ducts incorporated into
the existing bridges….
In the eventuality of inappropriate construction procedures or timing, it is highly
improbable that any protected sites are placed at high risk. Ecological risks are
created by the movement of materials to and from the site during excavations,
demolition and construction.
Further to this, run-off during construction can pose a risk of siltation or the
transfer of contaminants within the water. There are no major rivers through the
site. There are drains within the site but no stream. There will be no operations
likely to affect these drains as the project primarily involves the installation of
banks of solar panels on metal frames that are constructed on-site and can be
introduced without significant modification to existing hedgerow or disturbance to
the minor watercourses….”
65. In s. 5.2.1 it was stated that there will be no significant or “measurable” impact on any
protected habitat, flora or fauna from the construction or operation of the project
“following good construction and operation practice”.
66. Section 6.0 replicated what had previously been said in the same section of the February
2017 report. It stated that there would be no effect on Natura 2000 sites as a
consequence of the use of standard best practice procedures. It also stated that no
further mitigation measures were required. The report also made clear, at this point, that
a number of measures were intended to be implemented within the site for biological
diversity enhancement and protection. The mitigation measures which are set out in s.
6.1 replicate the measures previously contained in the February 2017 report.
67. When the matter was appealed to the Board, a detailed report was prepared by the
inspector appointed by the Board. In that report, she summarised the grounds of appeal
submitted by Fiddane Solar Action Group. One of the concerns raised in the appeal was
in relation to the streams running along the boundaries of the site (as noted in the CEMP).
The case was made that these should have been identified and considered in the
appropriate assessment screening exercise.
68. The inspector, in her report, also summarised the submission made by the developer in
response which (inter alia) highlighted that extensive measures were proposed within the
CEMP that “will protect the watercourses from any risk of pollution or contamination”.
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69. In s. 7.4.3 of the report, the inspector notes that the construction process for the solar
farm is “relatively low impact”. In particular, she notes that the metal uprights
supporting the solar panels will be driven into the soil without any separate foundation.
Nonetheless, she notes in s. 7.4.4 that there is a potential for silt laden run-off to enter
adjoining watercourses during construction and that this is addressed in the CEMP. In s.
7.4.5 she observes:-
“On the basis of the information provided it is reasonable to conclude that the
proposed development will not impact upon the prevailing drainage conditions or
water quality in the area”.
70. As noted previously, the inspector (in s. 7.11.3 of her report) notes that there is a
hydrological connection between the development site and the SAC. The relevant extract
from the report is quoted in para. 56 above. In the same paragraph, the inspector
identifies that, as a consequence of the hydrological connection, there is the potential for
harmful effects in particular during the construction phase as a consequence of (inter alia)
silt laden run-off. In the immediately following paragraph, the inspector explains why,
notwithstanding this hydrological connection and the potential for harmful effects, she
concludes that the SAC will not be affected by the proposed development:-
“Taking into consideration the incorporation of best practice methods during the
construction phase which are considered an integral part of the development to
protect against sediment and hydrocarbon release, I would concur with the
conclusions of the screening report submitted that no indirect impacts are
envisaged. In terms of the operational phase discharge from the development is to
be to existing greenfield run-off rates. It is not proposed to remove any existing
on-site drainage ditches”.
71. Counsel for the applicant strongly argued that it is clear from this paragraph that the
inspector did take the protective measures proposed in the CEMP into account in reaching
her conclusion that there would be no adverse impacts on the SAC. Counsel argued that,
having regard to the decision of the CJEU in People Over Wind, this was impermissible.
He also drew attention to what had been said by the inspector in the immediately
preceding paragraph (quoted in para. 56 above) where she had acknowledged that, as a
consequence of the hydrological connection there is “potential for indirect effects from
emissions to ground and surface water during the construction phase such as silt laden
run-off, hydrocarbons or other pollutants”. Thus, counsel argued that it was clear that
the inspector had taken into account at the screening stage measures which were
designed to avoid or reduce the harmful effects of the project.
72. Having regard to the approach taken by the CJEU in para. 40 of the judgment in People
Over Wind, the outcome of this issue depends on whether it can be said that the
measures in question were intended to avoid or reduce the harmful effects of the
proposed development. The CJEU did not offer any guidance as to how a national court is
to determine the intention underlying a measure. As a matter of principle, it appears
unlikely that the CJEU could have in mind that the national court would assess this issue
Page 25 ⇓
by reference to the declared intention of the developer. That approach would give rise to
a fairly obvious potential for abuse. As a matter of principle, it would therefore appear to
be necessary and appropriate for the national court to adopt an objective approach. This
is the view which has been taken by Simons J. in the Heather Hill case discussed below.
73. The nature of the approach to be taken by the court has been considered in a number of
recent decisions by Barniville, Simons and Quinn JJ. In the first of those decisions,
namely Kelly v. An Bord Pleanála [2019] IEHC 84, Barniville J. dealt with a judicial review
challenge to a decision of the Board to grant permission to Aldi Stores for the
development of a supermarket in Laytown, County Meath. The grounds of challenge
included a contention that the Board had, impermissibly, taken into account mitigation
measures at the screening stage. In that case, the measures in question were
Sustainable Drainage Systems (“SUDS”) measures which were incorporated into the
development design. The Board and the developer resisted the case made by the
applicant on the basis that the SUDS measures were not by way of mitigation but were
standard drainage systems which are required (with limited exceptions) to be
incorporated into all new developments. It should also be noted that, in that case, there
was also affidavit evidence before the court to the effect that there was no direct pathway
between the development site in question and the shoreline in the vicinity of the relevant
Natura designated site.
74. Barniville J. came to the conclusion that SUDS measures could not be considered to be
mitigation measures as understood in People Over Wind. At pp. 72-73 of his judgment,
Barniville J. explained that there were a number of reasons why he had reached that
conclusion:-
“130. The first is that SUDS measures are required by the GDSDS to be incorporated in
all new developments in order to mitigate the impact of the development on the
aquatic environment unless a developer can demonstrate … that inclusion of SUDS
is ‘impractical due to site circumstances or that its effect on the control of run-off
would be minimal, such as for rural sites”…. I have considered the relevant
provisions of the GDSDS … . I note that among the key issues driving the policy
contained in the GDSDS … was the operation of storm water and fire water
drainage systems…. The legal requirements behind the policy are derived from the
Water Framework Directive …. It is clear … from a review of the extracts from the
GDSDS and from the uncontested affidavit evidence … that SUDS ‘is now a
standard component to virtually all projects, regardless of proximity to Natura 2000
sites, and therefore can be considered integral to project design rather than
something which is added on”….
131. Furthermore, the policy behind requiring … the inclusion of SUDS measures in a
development is not in any way directed to the protection of any European site
which might potentially be affected by a particular development …. It is clear that
the key driver for the requirement to incorporate SUDS … is the Water Framework
Directive and not the Habitats Directive. SUDS are required entirely without
Page 26 ⇓
reference to the presence of a European site within the zone of a particular
development.
132. In my view, SUDS measures are not ‘measures that are intended to avoid or reduce
the harmful effects’ of a particular development of a European site. They are not
‘intended’ to have that effect as they are required to be incorporated in
developments for the reason set out in the GDSDS…. They are not required to be
incorporated by reason of the potential effect of a development on a European site.
SUDS measures cannot, therefore, … be regarded as measures that are ‘intended’
to ‘avoid or reduce’ the harmful effects of a development on a European site. …
75. The issue of protective or mitigation measures was subsequently considered by Simons J.
in Heather Hill Management Company v. An Board Pleanala [2019] IEHC 450. That case
was concerned with a proposed residential development at Bearna, County Galway. The
applicant challenged the decision of the Board to grant permission for the development on
a number of grounds. One of the grounds was that, in carrying out a screening exercise
for appropriate assessment, the Board had wrongly taken into account “best practice
measures” and thus had invalidly determined, on the basis of those measures, that there
was no likely effect on the Galway Bay Complex SAC (“the Galway Bay SAC”) and the
Inner Galway Bay SPA (“the SPA”). There was a hydrological connection between the
proposed development site and the Galway Bay SAC and SPA. The matter was dealt with
as follows in the inspector’s report:-
“The only potential pathways for effects on the SPA and SAC are through
hydrological connections, i.e. the Trusky Stream discharging to Galway Bay at
Barna. There will be no run-off from the site directly to any SAC or SPA. Best
practice measures will be undertaken to minimise emissions to the Trusky Stream
during the construction and operation of the development. These measures will
ensure the protection of water quality and fisheries resources in the Trusky Stream.
Emissions into Galway Bay at Barna from the Trusky Stream will be negligible and
any slight emissions that do enter Galway Bay … will be quickly dissipated by tidal
currents….
It is reasonable to conclude that on the basis of the information on the file … that
the proposed development … would not be likely to have a significant effect on …
Galway Bay…. SAC … and [the] SPA… and a Stage 2 Appropriate Assessment … is
not therefore required”.
76. The question which fell for determination in that case was whether the “best practice
measures” mentioned by the inspector were intended to avoid harmful effects on the
Galway Bay SAC and on the SPA or whether they were intended for some other purpose.
77. In considering the issue, Simons J., at para. 156 of his judgment, observed that the
distinction between measures intended to avoid harmful effects and measures intended
for some other purpose “can readily be applied in cases where the competent authority
has adopted a stepped-approach in its screening determination, such as that adopted on
Page 27 ⇓
the facts of People Over Wind. In that case, the screening report … had, first, identified a
potential impact upon the qualifying interest, and, secondly, put forward measures to
avoid and reduce that impact”.
78. In the course of the hearing before me, counsel for the applicant submitted that, on the
basis of the report of the inspector, a stepped approach was adopted here in that the
inspector (in the passage quoted in para. 56 above) drew attention to the hydrological
connection with the SAC and stated that, as a consequence, there was a potential for
indirect effects during the construction phase – in particular from silt laden run-off or
other pollutants. However, counsel for the Board sought to emphasise what was said by
Simons J. in para. 158 of his judgment where he warned against the “temptation” to work
backwards from the existence of measures and to assume that “but for” such measures,
the proposed development would be likely to have a significant effect. Simons J. stressed
that the emphasis must always be on the intended purpose of the measure. That said,
Simons J. also stressed (in para. 164 of his judgment) that the label which the parties
choose to attach to a particular measure is not dispositive. Intention must be determined
on an objective basis. Simons J. considered the judgment of Barniville J. in Kelly and
observed at para. 162:-
“It follows from this case law that the question of whether a particular measure is
an avoidance / reduction measure falls to be answered by reference to the intended
purpose of the measure. This will require consideration of the rationale for the
imposition of the measure. If, as in People Over Wind, a measure is expressly
described as a protective measure, then it falls within the category of avoidance /
reduction measures which cannot legitimately be taken into account as part of a
stage 1 screening exercise. Conversely, if, as in Kelly …, the measures are required
for purposes entirely unrelated to the Habitats Directive, then the mere fact that
reference is made to same in the context of the discussion of the screening
determination does not invalidate that decision. It all depends on what reliance is
placed upon same. As appears from the inspector's report in Kelly …, there was no
watercourse on the application site … which could act as a pathway to any
European site …”.
79. While Simons J., in that passage, stressed that the mere fact that reference is made to
such measures does not per se invalidate a screening decision, he also made clear in
para. 170 that the fact that the measures might also have a purpose unrelated to the
Habitat’s Directive does not preclude a finding that the measures were also intended to
avoid or reduce the impact of the development on European sites.
80. Simons J. analysed the approach taken by the inspector in the passage from her report
quoted in para. 75 above. At para. 168 he drew attention to the fact that there were two
strands to her reasoning:-
(a) In the first place, she drew attention to the use of best practice measures intended
to minimise emissions into the stream; and
Page 28 ⇓
(b) She also concluded that any slight emissions from the stream that do enter Galway
Bay at Bearna will be quickly dissipated by tidal currents.
81. Simons J. observed in the same paragraph that the inspector did not rely solely on
dispersal by the tide in reaching her screening determination. The avoidance/reduction of
emissions to the Trusky Stream also featured in her reasoning.
82. Simons J. rejected the argument made by the Board and the developer in that case that
the “best practice measures” were intended to address the impact of the proposed
development on the immediate locality rather than on the Natura sites. At para. 170 of
his judgment he said:-
“With respect, this argument cannot be reconciled with the language of the
inspector's recommended screening determination when taken as a whole. It
cannot be overlooked that the inspector chose to make express reference to ‘best
practice measures’ in what is the very summary of the screening exercise. The
inspector self-evidently attached importance to these measures. The fact that the
measures would have a benefit to flora and fauna within the application site does
not preclude a finding that the measures would also avoid / reduce the impact on
the European sites. The two outcomes are entirely compatible. There is nothing in
the judgment in People Over Wind which says that the effect on the European sites
has to be the only intended purpose.”
83. Simons J. then analysed the underlying documents in that case including a report
prepared by an ecologist which set out a number of mitigation measures which, in
substance, are quite similar to those proposed in the present case. Simons J. set out his
ultimate conclusion as follows at paras. 177-178:-
“177. On the facts of the present case, there is a potential hydrological connection
between the application site and the European sites, via the Trusky stream. The
stream enters the sea at Barna pier, some 1.4 km to 1.5 km east of the Galway
Bay SAC and SPA. Whereas the screening determination does state that any
emissions into Galway Bay would be quickly dissipated by tidal currents, the
determination does not rest exclusively on this factor. Rather, the inspector's
screening determination, which was accepted and adopted by An Bord Pleanála,
makes express reference to ‘best practice measures’ being undertaken to minimise
emissions to the Trusky stream during the construction and operation of the
development. The structure of the screening determination, and the fact that the
inspector thought it necessary to make reference to ‘best practice measures’, in
what is a very short determination, indicates that the inspector was relying upon
the combined effect of the ‘best practice measures’ and dissipation by tidal currents
in reaching her determination.
178. The reference to ‘best practice measures’ can only be understood as referring to the
‘mitigation measures’ as enumerated in s. 6 the ecological report. …”.
Page 29 ⇓
84. The judgments of Barniville J. and Simons J. were subsequently analysed and applied by
Quinn J. in Uí Mhuirnin v. Minister for Housing Planning and Local Government
[2019] IEHC 824. That case was concerned with the validity of a foreshore licence granted by
the respondent Minister (“the Minister”) in respect of a renewable energy wind wave and
tidal test facility near Spiddal, County Galway. The decision to grant the licence was
challenged by the applicant on a number of grounds including on the ground that the
Minister unlawfully took mitigation measures into account when carrying out a screening
exercise for appropriate assessment. For the purposes of the screening report in that
case consultants were retained to produce a screening report. That report identified a
number of Natura sites which were relevant for the purposes of the exercise but it came
to the conclusion that there was no potential for significant effects on those sites from the
proposed activity such that a stage 2 appropriate assessment was not required. This
conclusion was set out in s. 3 of the report. No mitigation measures of any kind were
identified in that section of the report. However, s. 4 of the report contained an
assessment of the likely significance of the proposed activity on marine mammals and in
that section of the report a number of mitigation measures were proposed. The report
stated that these mitigation measures were proposed in order to ensure a “low risk” to
marine mammals.
85. The consultants’ report in Uí Mhuirnin was subsequently considered by a committee which
concluded that the proposed activity was unlikely to have a negative impact on the Natura
sites. It was specifically stated that:
“with the application of mitigating/best practice measures described in the
environmental report, it is likely to reduce the potential impact to negligible levels”.
86. The committee produced its own screening report in which a number of potential impacts
on the relevant Natura sites both during the installation phase and the operational phase
were identified. The report identified the “best practice measures” which were proposed
to protect marine mammals. It contained a statement that there would be no direct or
indirect impact and that the “overall integrity of the Natura 2000 sites will not be
affected”. It then stated that “on the basis of the above” a conclusion could be reached
that there were not likely to be any significant effects as a result of the proposed project.
87. In his judgment, Quinn J. observed that the People over Wind principle is only violated if,
in the first place, potential harmful effects of the project on the relevant Natura site have
been identified. In para. 144 he drew attention to the screening report of the Committee
which had identified a number of harmful effects during both the installation phase and
the operational phase.
88. Quinn J. next considered whether the Committee had taken into account measures which
were designed to avoid or reduce the harmful effects in question. In this context, he
rejected the suggestion made by the Minister that the measures in question were directed
solely at the impact on marine mammals. He observed, in para. 148, that the
assessment of impact on marine mammals was interwoven with the assessment of impact
on other species. In the circumstances, Quinn J. concluded that the Committee clearly
Page 30 ⇓
fell into error having regard to the principles laid down by the CJEU in People over Wind
as further explained in Kelly and in Heather Hill.
89. Taking the decision of the CJEU in People over Wind together with the judgments in Kelly,
Heather Hill and Uí Mhuirnín, it is possible to summarise the relevant principles as
follows:-
(a) In carrying out a screening exercise, the precautionary principle must be applied;
(b) A stage 2 appropriate assessment must be carried out if, on a screening exercise, it
is not possible to exclude the risk that a proposed development will have a
significant effect on a Natura site;
(c) The appropriate time to consider measures capable of avoiding or reducing any
significant effects on the site concerned is at the stage 2 appropriate assessment
when a comprehensive analysis of those measures can be carried out and a
determination reached as to whether they will or will not be effective;
(d) Taking account of such measures at the screening stage is liable to undermine the
protections afforded by the Habitats Directive. To take account of the measures at
the screening stage runs the risk of circumventing the stage 2 assessment which
constitutes an essential safeguard under the Habitats Directive;
(e) It is accordingly impermissible, at the screening stage, to take account of measures
intended to avoid or reduce the harmful effects of a proposed development;
(f) The question of the intention underlying the measures in question is to be assessed
objectively. Thus, the language used in any document generated in the course of
the screening exercise is not determinative;
(g) On the other hand, there may be cases where, having regard to the language used
by the competent authority (or in some document relied upon by the competent
authority) it is obvious that the measures in issue were designed to avoid and
reduce any impact on the relevant site. As Simons J. observed in Heather Hill, this
is what happened in People over Wind where the measures concerned were
expressly described as “protective” with reference to the relevant site;
(h) On the other side of the coin, there may be cases where it is clear that the
measures in question were adopted not for the purpose of avoiding or reducing the
potential impact on the relevant site but were adopted solely and exclusively for
some other purpose. This is exemplified in the decision of Barniville J. in Kelly
where the relevant measures were found, as a matter of fact, to be a standard
component in virtually all projects; they were not in any way directed to the
protection of any Natura site.
(i) On the other hand, the fact that one of the purposes of the measures in question
may have no connection with a Natura site does not exclude the possibility that
Page 31 ⇓
there may be more than one purpose for the measures. In cases where such an
unconnected purpose is identified, it is therefore necessary to consider whether, as
a matter of fact, the measures were also intended to avoid or reduce the impact of
the development on the Natura site.
(j) That said, it is not legitimate to work backwards from the existence of measures
and to assume from their existence that the proposed development must be likely,
in the absence of such measures, to have a significant effect on the relevant site.
As Simons J. observed in Heather Hill, any such temptation to take that course
must be resisted;
(k) In considering whether measures fall foul of the People over Wind principle, it is not
usually helpful to consider whether the measure is “integral” to the project or is
something “additional”. This is because it may be difficult in practice to draw a
meaningful distinction between the two. A developer may well anticipate the need
for particular mitigation measures and arrange for those to be “built in” to the
project.
(l) In each case, it is essential to analyse the measures in question in the context of
the screening exercise carried out by the competent authority (and any documents
relevant to that exercise) and to determine, on an entirely objective basis, whether
the measures can be said to have been intended to avoid or reduce harmful effects
on a Natura site or whether the measures were designed solely for some other
purpose.
90. It is now necessary to apply the principles summarised above to the particular
circumstances of this case. In my view, it is clear from the CEMP and the screening
exercise carried out by the inspector on behalf of the Board that the measures set out in
the CEMP to protect watercourses from pollution (in particular silt laden run-off) were
intended to avoid or reduce the harmful effects on the SAC. I have reached that
conclusion for the following reasons:-
(a) In the first place, although the screening exercise carried out by the consultants on
behalf of the developer suggested that no mitigation measures were required for
any Natura sites, the information contained within that report was somewhat
equivocal. As noted in para. 64 above, the report stated that “no significant
potential source-pathway, receptor link” (emphasis added) to the SAC had been
identified. While the purpose of a screening exercise is to identify whether a
proposed development may have a significant effect on a Natura site, it would be
difficult to form the view that there was no possibility of there being a significant
effect on the SAC as a consequence of any migration of silt (or other pollutants)
through any pathway (however small) that might exist between the development
site and the SAC.
(b) On page 11 of the same report, it was stated, with regard to the freshwater pearl
mussel, that: “the drains within the site would not create a clear connection by
Page 32 ⇓
which they would be affected within the area of their known occurrence”.(Emphasis
added). Again, having regard to the precautionary principle, that seems to me to
be a somewhat equivocal conclusion;
(c) Notwithstanding the somewhat guarded statements in the consultants’ screening
report, it is clear from the CEMP that there was, in fact, a concern about the
possible impact of the development on the River Blackwater. As noted in para. 60
above, the CEMP specifically stated that any recommendations by Inland Fisheries,
Macroom would be implemented “to ensure the protection of the River Blackwater
and its tributaries and the associated aquatic fauna and any fisheries connected to
the site by the river”.
(d) The concern about the potential impact on the River Blackwater is reinforced by
what is said at p. 11 of the CEMP which described the silt fences and other
protective measures to be undertaken. The express purpose of these measures
was stated to be to prevent any silt laden waters entering the drainage
ditches/seasonal streams and in turn discharging to the Oakfront stream or the
Ardglass stream. It should be recalled, in this context, that neither of those streams
traverse the proposed development site itself. As noted previously, the Ardglass
stream flows approximately 75 metres beyond the western boundary of the
development site while the Oakfront stream flows, at its closest point, adjacent to
the eastern boundary of the site. There appears to be a clear recognition within the
CEMP that there is a connection between the drainage ditches and seasonal
streams on site and the Oakfront stream and the Ardglass stream. This is
reinforced by what is said on p. 11 about the use of straw bales as an added
protection to intercept any silt laden or other polluting run-off “migrating towards
the Oakfront stream or the Ardglass stream due to any potential unforeseen failure
of silt fencing”.
(e) Thus, even prior to considering the report of the inspector, it is evident that the
protective measures described in the CEMP were designed to prevent discharge to
the Oakfront stream and the Ardglass stream. In circumstances where neither of
those streams traverse the development site, this gives the lie to the suggestion
that the measures were intended to protect the development site itself.
Furthermore, the CEMP clearly demonstrates that the construction phase of the
development may give rise to silt. Otherwise, it would not be necessary to put the
measures in place to prevent the migration of silt-laden material. This runs directly
counter to what had been stated in the screening report prepared by the
consultants where, at p. 17, it had stated that: “there are drains within the site but
no stream. There will be no operations likely to affect these drains as the project
primarily involves the installation of banks of solar panels on metal frames that are
constructed on-site and can be introduced without significant modification to
existing hedgerow or disturbance to the minor watercourses”;
Page 33 ⇓
(f) Crucially, both the Ardglass stream and the Oakfront stream discharge to the River
Blackwater which is protected by the SAC. This is confirmed by what is stated by
the inspector at p. 32 of her report. As noted above, she found that there was a
hydrological connection between the development site and the SAC as a
consequence of the field drains which had the potential to discharge into the nearby
Ardglass stream and Oakfront stream. However, even before the inspector reached
that conclusion, it is evident from the CEMP itself that there was an understanding
on the part of the developer of the potential impact of the construction phase of the
development on the River Blackwater and its tributaries. That was expressly
acknowledged on p. 17 of the CEMP (quoted in subpara. (e) above). Given the
contents of the CEMP, it is difficult to understand how the authors of the screening
report prepared by the consultants could have reached the conclusions which they
did. Based on the content of the CEMP, it is impossible to avoid the conclusion that
the purpose of the silt fences and the other protective measures described in the
CEMP were intended for any purpose other than the protection of the watercourses
draining into the River Blackwater where the various species in that river (including
the freshwater pearl mussel) could potentially be adversely affected by ingress of
silt-laden water migrating from the construction works on the development site. I
do not believe that there is any plausible basis to suggest that the measures were
designed to protect the flora and fauna on the development site itself. In light of
the contents of the CEMP, and in light of the fact that both the Ardglass and
Oakfront streams were off-site, the silt fences cannot have been designed to
protect the development site itself;
(g) Thus, it seems to me that it should have been obvious to the Board on considering
the materials before it, that the principal purpose of the silt fences and other
protective measures was to protect against the migration of silt or other pollutants
from the construction phase of the development to the SAC.
(h) In fact, the inspector clearly saw that there was not just a hydrological connection
between the development site and the SAC but also that there was the potential for
harmful effects during the construction phase of the development. While the
relevant section of her report has already been quoted above, it is worth reiterating
what she said here:-
“Field drains within the site discharge into the adjacent watercourses….As a
consequence there is potential for indirect effects from emissions to ground
and surface water during the construction phase such as silt run off,
hydrocarbons or other pollutants”.
(i) Having identified the potential that the construction phase of the development
could have adverse impacts on the SAC, the inspector then took into account what
she described as “best practice methods” during the construction phase, in coming
to the conclusion that the development would not have an adverse impact on the
SAC. In reaching that conclusion, the inspector does not appear to have considered
Page 34 ⇓
the intention underlying what she described as the “best practice methods”. In
light of the terms of the CEMP, it is clear that the measures in question were
intended to prevent silt-laden run-off. They were not intended to protect the
development site itself but were intended to protect the downstream effects of any
such run-off. From an ecological perspective, the most important feature
downstream of the development is the SAC. It should therefore have been clear to
the Board that the principal purpose of the proposed measures was to protect
against harm to the SAC. In those circumstances, having regard to the decision of
the CJEU in People over Wind, the measures in question could not be taken into
account at the screening stage;
(j) In fairness to the inspector, she appears to have placed some emphasis, in this
context, on the fact that she considered the measures in question to form “an
integral part of the development”. However, subsequent to her report, Simons J.
has made clear in Heather Hill, that this is not the appropriate test. Moreover, any
consideration of the CEMP would demonstrate that the purpose of the measure was
to protect against silt-laden or other deleterious run-off. This could not be said to
have been done for the purposes of projecting flora and fauna on site. It was
clearly aimed at ensuring that there would be no migration of silt into watercourses
which flow into the River Blackwater and hence into the SAC.
91. In the circumstances, it appears to me that the Board was not entitled to take into
account the measures described in the CEMP in carrying out the screening exercise for
appropriate assessment in this case. As a consequence of the decision of the CJEU in
People over Wind, the Board was not entitled to proceed in this way. That error goes to
the jurisdiction of the Board. In the circumstances, the decision of the Board of 15th
November, 2018 appears to me to be invalid and the applicant must be entitled to an
order of certiorari quashing the decision to grant planning permission for the solar farm
development. I will, however, hear the parties as to whether the matter can now be
remitted to the Board in order to carry out a fresh screening exercise and, very probably,
a full appropriate assessment.
The complaint about Cooliney Bridge
92. For completeness, it should be noted that the applicant also contends that the decision of
the Board is invalid in circumstances where (so the applicant contends) the Board had no
scientific information before it on the risks to the SAC of modifications to Cooliney Bridge,
a structure crossing the Oakfront stream. In this context, it appears that this bridge was
shown in the wrong place on the maps submitted with the planning application. It is
therefore suggested that the bridge in question was never inspected or assessed. I do
not believe, however, that it is necessary to spend time on this issue. While the bridge
may have been shown in the wrong location, it is clear from the screening report
prepared by the consultants retained by the developer that two bridges were considered
for the purposes of the screening exercise. No one has suggested that there were more
than two bridges to be assessed. The view was taken that while the bridges would be
altered to provide access for electrical ducts (that would connect the solar farm with the
Page 35 ⇓
national grid) this would not involve any operations within the watercourses crossed by
the ducts. I am not, therefore, satisfied that the applicant has made out a case that there
was a failure to consider Cooliney Bridge. While the bridge may have been shown in an
incorrect place on the map, it seems to me that the bridge was nonetheless assessed.
The case against the State Respondents
93. In light of the fact that I have found the decision of the Board to be invalid, there is,
strictly speaking, no necessity to consider the case against the State Respondents. As
counsel for the State Respondents correctly observed in the course of the hearing, the
case against the State Respondents is contingent on the court reaching a conclusion that
the Board acted in accordance with Irish law. The case is made in paras. 48 and 51 of
the statement of grounds that, if the Board made its decision in accordance with Irish law,
then the State Respondents failed to adequately transpose the Habitats Directive and the
EIA Directive. However, one of the striking features of the case made against the State
Respondents is the complete lack of any attempt in the statement of grounds to set out
any basis on which the court might conclude that Irish law fell short of the requirements
of EU law. It seems to me that if a case is to be made against the State alleging that
there has been a failure to properly transpose EU law, any such case requires to be
pleaded specifically and with appropriate particularity. As Barniville J. explained in Kelly,
this is a requirement of O.84 r. 20 (3) which, as Barniville J. observed, was inserted by
way of amendment to give effect to the views expressed by the Supreme Court in A.P. v.
“‘It shall not be sufficient for an applicant to give as any of his grounds for the
purpose of paragraphs, (ii) or (iii) of sub-rule (2)(a) an assertion in general terms
of the ground concerned, but the applicant should state precisely each such ground,
giving particulars where appropriate, and identify in respect of each ground the
facts or matters relied upon as supporting that ground’. (Emphasis added).
94. In Kelly, Barniville J. was prepared to excuse the breach of O. 84 r. 20 (3) in
circumstances where the affidavit evidence provided some additional material which
assisted in the understanding of the case made. In contrast, in the present case, there is
nothing in the affidavits sworn in support of the statement of grounds or indeed in the
written legal submissions furnished in advance of the hearing which throws any light on
the basis for the applicant’s case that there has been a failure to properly transpose either
the EIA Directive or the Habitats Directive.
95. Essentially, what the applicant, in his case against the State respondents, has sought to
do is to reserve his position against those respondents pending a determination as to
whether the Board acted in accordance with Irish law. This is clear, for example, from
para. 50 of the statement of grounds where it is alleged that:-
“Errors in the application documentation, particularly in the AA Screening Report
have created lacunae, for which the First Named Respondent should have sought
best scientific information, prior to relying on the report. If gaps in scientific
knowledge are allowable in Appropriate Assessment screenings under Irish law,
Page 36 ⇓
then the significance of effects on the environment cannot be measured
scientifically or in accordance with the precautionary principles and there has been
an incorrect transposition of the Directive”.
96. No basis whatever is set out as to whether there is any provision of Irish law which allows
a competent authority such as the Board to proceed on the basis of gaps in scientific
knowledge. Furthermore, no such provision was identified in the course of the hearing.
In fact, there was no suggestion made during the course of the hearing that there was a
difference between Irish law, on the one hand, and EU law on the other insofar as
screening for appropriate assessment is concerned.
97. Similarly, insofar as the EIA Directive is concerned, the only plea which is made (other
than the contingent and unsubstantiated allegation of a failure to properly transpose the
EIA Directive is contained in para. 52 where the following is alleged:-
“The purported EIA Screening was not done in accordance with Annex IIA and
Annex III of the Directive. If the Court determines that the First Named
Respondent carried an EIA screening in accordance with the Directive then it has
been incorrectly transposed” (Emphasis added).
98. It is impossible to understand how a case of incorrect transposition arises on the basis of
the second sentence in para. 52 (as highlighted above). It is assumed that the words
“carried out” should be read as “did not carry out”. However, even on that basis, it is
impossible to understand how it could be said that the failure of the Board to carry out an
EIA screening in accordance with the EIA Directive must mean that there has been a
failure by the State to properly transpose that directive.
99. The approach taken by the applicant in this case has echoes of the approach taken in
Alen-Buckley v. An Bord Pleanála [2017] IEHC 311. In that case, as here, the principal
case was made against the Board. However, the State respondents were also joined to
the proceedings on the basis (inter alia) that, if the Board had made its decision in a
manner consistent with the 2000 Act and the 2001 Regulations, then the statutory
scheme was inconsistent with the EIA Directive and that, as a consequence, the State
would, in such circumstances, have failed to appropriately transpose the requirements of
the EIA Directive. Although that formed part of the grounds on which the applicants in
those proceedings sought relief, there was no claim made against the State respondents
in part D of the statement of grounds. In those circumstances, the State respondents
sought an order dismissing the proceedings as against them. Among the arguments
made by the State respondents in that case was that the court would first have to
determine whether the actions of the Board were lawful or otherwise permitted by Irish
domestic legislation before any issue regarding transposition of the EIA Directive could
arise. In light of the fact that no relief was sought against the State respondents in Part
D of the statement of grounds, Costello J. dismissed the proceedings under O.19 r.28 on
the basis that they failed to disclose a cause of action. However, in para. 45 of her
judgment she observed obiter that she also agreed with the arguments of the State
Page 37 ⇓
respondents insofar as they relied on O.84 r.20 (3). In the course of her judgment,
Costello J. also said (at paras. 41-44):-
“It is noteworthy that the applicants advanced no explanation as to why they did
not seek any relief expressly against the State defendants. It was open to them, …
to have sought declaratory relief to the effect that the Directive had not been
properly transposed into Irish law, …. Of course, such a case would have to be
properly pleaded in accordance with the requirements of O. 84, r. 20 (3)…. No
explanation was provided to the court as to why the applicants did not seek to
identify any provisions of either the Directive or Irish statute law or regulations
upon which they wish to advance their case that Irish law had failed properly to
transpose the Directive.
42. It appears that the applicants wished to reserve their position to see what position
was adopted by the Board. Once the Board had clarified its position then the
applicants would respond. This was made clear in the letter of the 20th March,
2017, which I have quoted above. They stated that ‘… the extent to which any such
domestic law provision appropriately transposes the requirements of the Directives
must be reviewed …’ once the Board has made clear which if any provision of
domestic law it may rely upon. It expressly stated that the issues will become
clearer when these statements of opposition and replying affidavits are filed.
43. The implications of the letter are inescapable. The applicants wish to finalise their
case in relation to the alleged or possible failure properly to transpose the Directive
into national law when they have received opposition papers from the Board. This is
clearly impermissible and contrary to the rules of court. The applicants are required
to advance the case they wish to make in full in the statement of grounds. They
must do so within time. …. The rules cannot be implicitly
circumvented…”.(Emphasis added).
100. As noted above, Costello J. went on to hold that, since no relief was sought against the
State respondents in those proceedings in part D of the statement of grounds, the case
should be dismissed under O.19 r.28. However, it is clear from the passage from her
judgment quoted above that she took the view that it is impermissible and contrary to the
Rules of the Superior Courts for an applicant to make a generalised allegation of a failure
to transpose EU law without specifically identifying the relevant provisions of Irish law and
EU law in issue and explaining how the alleged failure to transpose arises. This follows
from the clear language of O. 84 r. 20 (3) which, in turn, follows from the approach taken
by the Supreme Court in A.P. v. DPP. In that case, Murray C.J. at p. 732 said that:-
“In the interests of the good administration of justice it is essential that a party
applying for relief by way of judicial review sets out clearly and precisely each and
every ground upon which such relief is sought. …” (Emphasis added).
101. In the same case Denham J. (as she then was) said at p. 734:-
Page 38 ⇓
“The process requires the applicant to set out precisely the grounds upon which the
application is to be advanced.”
102. In the same case Hardiman J. said at p. 739:-
“In too many judicial review cases, it will be found that little attention has been
paid to the absolute necessity for a precise defining of the grounds on which relief
is sought until the case is actually before the Court. In my view, this case furnishes
an extreme example of this unfortunate tendency. …”. (Emphasis added).
103. In my view, the case against the State respondents was never properly pleaded in Part E
of the statement of grounds. As Costello J. observed in Alen-Buckley at para. 43 (quoted
above), an applicant for judicial review is required to advance the case he or she wishes
to make in full in the statement of grounds. It is not sufficient to plead a case of alleged
failure to transpose an EU Directive without properly setting out full particulars of the
basis on which it is contended that a specific provision of Irish law fails to comply with a
specific obligation imposed by the Directive concerned. An allegation of a failure to
transpose an obligation of EU law is a serious and significant allegation and accordingly it
is particularly important, in such a case, that the requirements of O.84 r. 20 (3) should be
observed. It is unacceptable that an applicant should make an allegation of failure to
transpose purely on the basis that the applicant apprehends that the relevant competent
authority (in this case the Board) may be in a position to demonstrate, in an area of
activity ultimately governed by European law that it has acted fully in compliance with its
obligations under the relevant Irish law implementing the EU law measure in question.
That is precisely the form of procedure which was condemned by Costello J. in Alen-
Buckley.
104. It should, in any event, be noted that, even if there were a divergence between Irish law
and EU law (and no such divergence has been identified in this case) that would not avail
the competent authority whose decision is in issue in the proceedings. It is clear from the
decision of the CJEU in Case C-378/17 Minister for Justice and Equality v. Workplace
Relations Commission that a competent authority such as the Board is always required to
apply EU law where there is a conflict between a provision of EU law and national law. In
that case, an issue arose as to whether the Workplace Relations Commission (“WRC”) in
Ireland was entitled to disapply Irish law where the WRC came to the conclusion that the
national provision in question was contrary to EU law. The CJEU (in a decision rendered
by the Grand Chamber) held that the WRC was required to disapply national law where it
was incompatible with EU law. At paras. 36-39 of its judgment the CJEU said:-
“36. any provision of a national legal system and any legislative, administrative or
judicial practice which might impair the effectiveness of EU law by withholding from
the national court having jurisdiction to apply such law the power to do everything
necessary at the moment of its application to disregard national legislative
provisions which might prevent directly applicable EU rules from having full force
and effect are incompatible with the requirements which are the very essence of EU
law….
Page 39 ⇓
37. …
38. As the Court has repeatedly held, that duty to disapply national legislation that is
contrary to EU law is owed not only by national courts, but also by all organs of the
State — including administrative authorities — called upon, within the exercise of
their respective powers, to apply EU law ….
39. It follows that the principle of primacy of EU law requires not only the courts but all
the bodies of the Member States to give full effect to EU rules.”
105. It is therefore clear that, even if there was a concern that EU law and national law were
not on all fours, the Board could not, if its decision was contrary to EU law, successfully
defend the claim made against it by the applicant in these proceedings on the basis that it
had properly applied Irish domestic law.
106. For the reasons outlined in paras. 93 to 105 above, I have come to the conclusion that,
irrespective of the outcome of these proceedings as against the Board, the claim against
the State respondents must be dismissed as the statement of grounds failed to properly
plead a case against the State as required by O. 84 r.20 (3).
Conclusion
107. On the other hand, it is clear that the applicant must be entitled to appropriate relief as
against the Board in respect of the decision of 15th November, 2018. In light of the
findings which I have made above in relation to the screening exercise carried out by the
Board, the decision of the Board is invalid and must be quashed on that ground. In
addition, the applicant has succeeded in his case insofar as Regulation 72 (1) of the 2001
Regulations is concerned. However, the applicant has failed to make out any case that
the proposed solar farm requires to be assessed under the EIA Directive.
108. I will hear the parties in due course as to (a) the precise form of order to be made, (b)
the costs of the proceedings, and (c) whether the matter should now be remitted to the
Board for further consideration in light of the conclusions reached by me in this judgment.
109. In light of my finding in relation to the invalidity of the screening exercise, it does not
seem to me to be worthwhile to consider whether I should withhold relief in relation to
Regulation 72 (1) on any discretionary ground. I will nonetheless hear any submissions
that may be appropriate in relation to the form of relief to be granted in respect of the
Regulation 72 (1) issue.
Result: The Court held that the decision of the Board of the 15th of November, 2018 was invalid and that it should be quashed
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